UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (ll) Notification 2021

 Union Public Service Commission 

 

• CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION

 The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.

 Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.

Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents will be taken up only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.

• LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS

1.  The Online Applications can be filled upto 24th August, 2021 till 6:00 PM.
2. The online Applications can be withdrawn from 31.08.2021 to 06.09.2021 till 6.00
   PM. Detailed instructions regarding withdrawal of Applications is available at

 

 The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the UPSC website ( http://upsc.gov.in) for downloading by candidates. No e-Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid & active e-mail id while filling up online application form as the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.

 

•  PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

 Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

 For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) candidates must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix-III of the Notice.

•  MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a)The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instruction shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

No.8/1/2021.E.I(B)—A Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2021 will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 14th November, 2021 for admission to the under mentioned courses :

1. Indian Military Academy, Dehradun—  153rd (DE) Course commencing in July, 2022 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders]:-  100
2. Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala—Course commencing in July, 2022 Executive Branch (General Service)/Hydro [including 03 vacancies for NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Naval Wing through NCC Special Entry ) holders ].:- 22
   
3. Air Force Academy, Hyderabad—(Pre-Flying) Training Course commencing in July, 2022 i.e. No. 212 F(P) Course.[including 03 vacancies are reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Air Wing) holders through NCC Spl. Entry]:- 32
   
4. Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 116th SSC (Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course commencing in October, 2022:- 169
   
5. Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 30th SSC Women (NT) (UPSC) Course commencing in October, 2022. :-16

 

• CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:

 

AGARTALA	GHAZIABAD	PANAJI (GOA)
AGRA	GORAKHPUR	PATNA
AJMER	GURGOAN	PORT BLAIR
AHMEDABAD	GWALIOR	PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHBAD)
AIZAWL	HYDERABAD	PUDUCHERRY
ALIGARH	IMPHAL	PUNE
ALMORA (UTTRAKHAND)	INDORE	RAIPUR
ANANTPUR (ANDHRA PRADESH)	ITANAGAR	RAJKOT
AURANGABAD	JABALPUR	RANCHI
BENGALURU	JAIPUR	SAMBALPUR
BAREILLY	JAMMU	SHILLONG
BHOPAL	JODHPUR	SHIMLA
BILASPUR	JORHAT	SILIGUDI
CHANDIGARH	KOCHI	SRINAGAR
CHANNAI	KOHIMA	SRINAGAR UTTRAKHAND
COIMBATOR	KOLKATA	THANE
CUTTACK	KOZHIKODE	THIRUVVANATHAPURAM
DEHRADUN	LEH	TIRUCHIRAPALLI
DELHI	LUCKNOW	TIRUPATI
DHARWAD	LUDHIANA	UDAIPUR
DISPUR	MADURAI	VARANASI
FARIDABAD	MUMBAI	VELLORE
GANGTOK	MYSORE	VIJAYAVADA
GAYA	NAGPUR	VISHAKHAPATNAM
GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR	NAVI MUMBAI	WARANGAL

 

Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.

 

•  Educational Qualifications:

1.  For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
2.  For Indian Naval Academy—Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution.
3.  For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.

 Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of
Graduation/provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview
at the SSB.

 

Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog upto the last semester / year for which results have been declared upto the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’, CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and PO3(A)/Air Headquarters, ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled :

1. For admission to IMA on or before 1st July, 2022, Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st July, 2022 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th May, 2022.
2. For admission to Officers' Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st October, 2022.

Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

 

In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination.

NOTE I : Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

NOTE II : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled

 

.NOTE III : In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.

• Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2021 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.

• FEE

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking
facility of State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.

A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

 1. The Competitive examination comprises:
(a) Written examination as shown in para 2 below.
(b) Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.
2. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:
(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air

 

Force Academy

Subject	Duration	Maximum Marks
1. English	2 Hours	100
2. General Knowledge	2 Hours	100
3. Elementary Mathematics	2 Hours	100

B.For Admission to Officers training Academy

Subject	Duration	Maximum Marks
1. English	2 Hours	100
2. General Knowledge	2 Hours	100

The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300, 300, 300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy respectively.

3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test Booklets) of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be set bilingually in Hindi as well as English.

4. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.

5. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
6. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
7. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
 

B. STANDARD AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION STANDARD

The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University.

SYLLABUS

 ENGLISH (Code No. 01)

The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 02)

General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study.

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 03)

ARITHMETIC

Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation.
Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.

ALGEBRA

Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices

TRIGONOMETRY

Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90°
Simple trigonometric identities.
Use of trigonometric tables.
Simple cases of heights and distances.

GEOMETRY

Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci

.
MENSURATION
Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.

STATISTICS
Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.

INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST

The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:-
(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz.The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.

Medical Standards.

3. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive in view of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in the scientific knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities. Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based on following guidelines
and principles.
4. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance of military duties in any terrain, climate, season incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical aid. Candidate also should be free of medical conditions which require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid / drugs.

(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should be no evidence of weak constitution, imperfect development of any system, any congenital deformities/ diseases/syndrome or malformation.
(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or fistula/e anywhere on the body.
(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin.
(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.
(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement.
(f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.
(g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc.
(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision.
(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule-cochlear system.
(k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.
(l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or palate, nasal polyps or disease of the naso-Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal deformity and no features of chronic tonsillitis.
(m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joint.
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels incl congenital, genetic, organic incl hypertension, and conduction disorders.
(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other disease /syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest including allergies /immunological conditions, connective tissue disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of chest.

(p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality of the liver, pancreas incl endocrinal, congenital, hereditary or genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities.
(q) No diseases/syndrome/disability of any endocrinal system, reticuloendothelial system.
(r) No diseases/syndrome/disability of genito-urinary system including malformations, atrophy/hypertrophy of any organ or gland.
(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease.
(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or enuresis.
(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo-skeletal system and joints incl skull, spine and limbs.
(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/ syndrome/disability.

5. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure. However, any abnormal traits noticed during medical examination will be a cause for
rejection.

6. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions which lead to rejection are:-
(a) Musculo-skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs e.g. scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis, deformities of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton, mal united fractures, deformed limbs, fingers, toes and congenital deformities of spine.
(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers, deformed joints like cubitus valgus, cubitus varus, knock knees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or fingers and shortened limbs.
(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea, lens, retina, squint and ptosis.
(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of pinna, tympanic membranes, middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and congenital abnormalities of lips, palate, peri-auricular sinuses and lymphadenitis/adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for Conversational Voice and Forced Whispering for each ear.
(e) Dental conditions:-
(i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws, which are known to be progressive or recurrent.
(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower jaw which may hamper efficient mastication and/or speech will be a cause for rejection.
(iii) Symptomatic Temporo-Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.
(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening.
(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from gums.
(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks from the date of surgery/injury whichever is later.
(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication, maintenance of oral hygiene or general nutrition or performance of duties efficiently.